Here I go, challenging a tradition again.

So lately I've been reading through a Chronological NIV Bible as my morning devotional reading time. (Just for completeness in thought's sake, I'll note that I'm reading through Hebrews and Colossians right now in my 'normal' NIV at bedtime.)

Reading through the NIV put into what has been studied as its --likely-- chronological order has been really fascinating on many levels. I won't try to go into all of it right now. But today I was reading about Holy Week (the week that Jesus was ultimately crucified), and in the section notes, it made the case that the days we've traditionally celebrated both the Last Supper and the Crucifixion is a day too early. In other words, it's actually quite possible that Jesus was crucified on Thursday, and the Last Supper was not on "Maundy Thursday", but actually Wednesday.

I know, I know...I had the same thought at first: Are you KIDDING ME? No way.

But then as I got into the word of God following the section notes, I tried looking at it with fresh eyes. (Something I've been doing a lot of lately -- reading the Word of God and asking the Lord to speak to me through his word, and not through the lens of teaching that I've heard all my Christian life.) I read, and noticed anew, the following:

Christ said that he has eagerly desired to eat this passover with the disciples before he suffered. I always assumed he meant THIS passover, as in, THIS meal. But then why, after Jesus has already washed his disciples feet and broken the bread and shared the wine, when Judas gets up to leave and Jesus tells him, "What you are about to do, do quickly", do the disciples think that Jesus is telling Judas (as the person in charge of the 12's money) that "what he is about to do" means "going out to buy what was to be needed for the Feast". This doesn't make sense -- why would they assume Judas is going out to get what is needed for the Feast (the Passover meal), if they've just completed it?

So, then within the section notes of the Chronological Bible there's a whole discussion of Jewish law and when the passover was to be celebrated. I don't want to go into all of it because it's not inspired, it's just the devotional writer's thoughts, but it is pretty interesting and it makes some neat parallels between the traditional days for the preparation of the passover lamb (which was killed to cover over the sins of the people): when it was selected, how long it was held for before being killed; and the timeframe of Jesus' triumphal entry into Jerusalem and his subsequent crucifixion.

I'm not a theologian nor a Greek scholar or anything, but I just found this whole idea pretty interesting. It could be completely wrong, and really it doesn't matter so much the timing of when these things happened in the grand scheme of things -- what's most important is that they DID happen, and we can accept that truth and be changed from living a life that's still under the law, being one under which no one can successfully live, to a life under the saving grace and freedom of Jesus Christ. But I like seeing the different ways that Jesus was the fulfillment of Jewish law, yet most in his day didn't even recongize him as such. And if it is true, I wonder -- when did it start becoming tradition to celebrate Maundy Thursday and Good Friday?

Just something to ponder today. If you ARE a theologian and/or Greek scholar, I'd love to hear your thoughts and if you've heard any significant proofs to the contrary. I don't say that sarcastically -- I really do want to know. Like I said, I'm not completely convinced-- I just found this idea pretty interesting, since its something I had NEVER heard of before.